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Sil the ShillPosted: Mar 02, 2010 - 22:30
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I have been talking to an associate of mine, after I found some Nazi paraphernalia he had purchased online. Long story short, he pointed me in the direction of this article

http://www.wintersonnenwende.com/scriptorium/english/archives/articles/jdecwar.html</p>

Basically saying that the Jews declared war on Germany first, thus justifying (perhaps?) Nazi Germany's actions. Is this a common thing in CT circles? I noticed it's from the Barnes Review as well... just wanted to see people's thoughts on the matter here.

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Edward L WinstonPosted: Mar 02, 2010 - 22:36
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I've heard it some in the anti-semitic community, but for the most part it's not that common from what I've seen.

Anyway, even if "Judea" declared war on Germany, who cares? The articles it shows came out after the Nazis already were clamping down on Jews, taking away their businesses, separating them from the population, and so forth. Jewish people abroad, especially in the United States and England were obviously pissed off about this, and held rallies, protests, etc. But, even as we see on that page, rallies in favor of Hitler, in favor of anti-semitism were much bigger, even in the United States.

Besides, what guns, tanks, planes, gas chambers, concentration camps, etc did a bunch of random individuals around the world have? None, but Germany did have these things and used them. Germany also spent several years building up to war, obviously it wasn't spontaneous.

It'd be like if today you had Hindus declaring war on the United States, but taking no action, just saying so, and then the US shuts down Hindu stores, gas stations, makes it illegal for non-hindus to marry them, and finally sets up concentration camps and kills millions of them. All without so much as a shot fired from one side. That's how insanely retarded the idea that "jews declared war on Germany so it was just defending itself" is.

The Jews didn't have Armies.

So, a better analogy than above would be if the United States said Hindus were bad, Hindus need to be separated, started shutting down businesses, etc. Then Hindus abroad "declared war" and then claiming that it was because they declared war that this was all done, even though it came after it had already started.

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Sil the ShillPosted: Mar 02, 2010 - 23:06
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Plenty of "ammo" for the next time I see him, thanks Edward. Yeah, I went over how a declaration doesn't really mean anything. Back then, there was no Israel, there was no state to declare war against Germany.

As far as the date thing goes, I'm not a history buff or anything... but I know he was using the starting point of German aggression against Jews as being the date of Kristallnacht. Because that was the beginning of the "Final Solution", right? Do you happen to know of some of the ways in which Germany began to prosecute Jews prior to the published date of this article? (March 24, 1933). He's a good guy and I'd hate to see him go down this path, so any more help would be greatly appreciated.

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Sil the ShillPosted: Mar 02, 2010 - 23:12
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I found something on the "Law for the Restoration of the Professional Civil Service", but this wasn't signed in until April 7th of that year.

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Edward L WinstonPosted: Mar 02, 2010 - 23:31
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Well Kristallnacht nor the Final Solution had been by 1933, but what you had at that time the build up to what became the Nuremberg Laws. The official, government boycott of all Jewish businesses began early in 1933.

I mean if we take the article literally, it says "Long before the Hitler government began restricting the rights of the German Jews, the leaders of the worldwide Jewish community formally declared war on the 'New Germany'"

Well the article they show, like you said is from March 24, 1933, but the Nuremberg Laws, which solidified what was already happening, but with state enforced hatred, was the national boycott of Jewish businesses which started on April 1st that same year. Other similar laws came afterward too.

And launching the national boycott of German businesses here in America really did almost nothing, considering that at the time about 1/3rd of all whites in America had some German ancestry, and out of that 1/10 were first or second generation. So you had groups like the American version of the NSDAP, the German-American bund, Friends of the New Germany, etc. popping up everywhere, and tons of tiny ones.

The article goes on:

"As all Jewish historians attest with much fervor, anti-Semitic uprisings of various degrees had been ever-present in European history."

So what? Black people were once slaves in the United States, that doesn't mean it's OK to beat them down in the street because they wanted the right to vote.

Further, in it's quote of the Express:

"The whole of Israel throughout the world is uniting to declare an economic and financial war on Germany."

Like you said previously, there was no Israel at all, I mean there were small groups of Jews in the area of what is today Palestine and Israel, but for the most part they were in Europe or America, or various other places. The use of the word war was just a way to make it sound fantastic, it's not literal.

The quote from "The Secret Contacts: Zionism and Nazi Germany" used to show a Zionist conspiracy wasn't actually written by the person who it's attributed to. The person was real, Klaus Polkehn, but in the original copies of this book, there's a * after his name, and the description basically says it was assembled from various articles he wrote. The quote is constantly used by anti-semites to show a collaboration between Zionists and the Nazis, or to blame the Jews for WWII, but he didn't actually say it -- and for the sake of argument, even if he did say it, oh well, because a lot of people lied back then in order to push their agenda through. Many of the people who use the quote will also claim the holocaust never happened, they'll ignore the irony of showing collaboration between Zionists and Nazis of an event they say didn't happen.

The article then goes on to quote official Nazi government members, Nazi sympathizers, and regular anti-semites. This is hardly evidence of anything, if you want a proper view of China, do you ask the Central Committee or do you find out what was really happening from various sources?

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Sil the ShillPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 00:52
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Excellent, thanks for all that! Just to be clear on one thing though... I've read that Hitler had been spouting anti-semetic things for many years prior to all this. And while the day of the German boycott on Jewish stores occurs after the Jewish boycott on German goods... the Jewish boycott was originally in response to Germany's (non-official policy) towards their Jewish citizens? In other words, as you say... the boycott just nationally enforced what was already occurring.

Sidebar: I wonder if Muertos will show up... I know he's been complaining about having nothing to debunk aside from global warming deniers and the occasional 9/11 truther. This might be a slightly refreshing breeze. :)

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Edward L WinstonPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 01:14
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Hitler had been antisemitic for years, since at least his 20s (see The Young Hitler I Knew), and even prior to being in WWI he was an avid collector of anti-Semitic and "Aryan" literature, primarily works of Joerg Lanz von Liebenfels and Guido von List, who actually had a set of pamphlets that Hitler collected, and while Hitler was more or less living as a vagabond, he had met him and was given a bunch of free pamphlets out of pity.

It's not like Hitler didn't care about the Jews prior to being in power, he wrote in Mein Kampf about expelling them all from Europe.

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advancedatheistPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 08:34
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This reminds me of the libertarian fiction about the noninitiation of force. A government can claim that a group it wants to deal with harshly initiated force against it, then use that claim to justify doing what it wanted to do to this "enemy" any way. Governments rarely, if ever, admit they initiated force just for the hell of it.

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Agent MattPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 09:20
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http://www.sfsite.com/01a/cr215.htm</p>

That book helped spawn some of the fairly retarded "spiritual" beliefs the inner Nazis bought into. Nazism was basically a religion anyways.

Good ole utopian scifi.

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advancedatheistPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 10:10
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@ Matt:

Vril, is a mysterious, vital force, which under the command of a skilled practitioner, can do all that was ascribed to the Force, and much more.

I wonder if you can collect and control Vril by decorating your house just right, like in feng shui.

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advancedatheistPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 10:32
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Writers have speculated what Nazi Germany would have turned into if it had won the war and the Nazi Party continued to hold power after Hitler's death. The cult model of Nazism, with Hitler as the cult's leader, suggests that he provided the rationale for the party's existence; the Nazi ideology didn't have much going for it until Hitler expropriated and developed it for his purposes.

By contrast, the Communist ideology predated, and existed independently of, the dictators in various Communist countries. It had already produced a body of theoretical literature well before the Bolshevik revolution. Given the ideology's pre-existing authority, the death of one Communist strong man wouldn't cause a political crisis because his successor, after some wrangling that might involve killing competitors, shared basically the same world view.

If Hitler had died from natural causes in a victorious Germany, and therefore removed the reason for the Nazi Party's existence, party discipline might have broken down in the resulting power struggle. The winners in the struggle would have the ability to redefine "Nazism" in ways foreign to Hitler's world view, and they could have steered Germany in a different, and possibly more benign, direction.

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EdPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 12:48
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Hitler was clearly heavily influenced by Martin Luther (the founder of protestantism) who wrote a book called On the Jews and Their Lies. I think almost anything in that book could easily have come out of Hilters mouth. He wrote about them being serpents and that we should burn down their schools and synagogues and destroy them, among other things.

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Edward L WinstonPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 14:53
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It's disturbing how much conspiracy theorists will quote and source Helena Blavatsky, but claim she exists separately from Nazism. I'm not suggesting these people themselves are Nazis, but rather extremely naive. I have no source, but I think I recall Peter Joseph quoting her or talking about her on one of his shows as well. It's mostly her history of religion stuff people like so much, even though it was all total bullshit.

FYI, if you don't know, she was the primarily influence on people like Liebenfels and von List when it came to "root races" and Aryans and so forth.

I don't know about any major influence Martin Luther had on Hitler, if it was any influence at all it would have been by proxy through the people I mentioned before, as those two men had the biggest influence over Hitler's view of not only Jews but also the German people. As well as his view of history, which was that "history is created by a few strong individuals."

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SkyPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 17:52
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>"I have no source, but I think I recall Peter Joseph quoting her or talking about her on one of his shows as well."<

I think Alex Jones tried to claim that Zeitgeist was a front for Blavatsky's Theosophical Society, which is the same thing as the NWO of course. PJ response on his show that he had never read Blavatsky:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6XiFsxF5po4

Interestingly, Blavatsky is cited as a source on the Zeitgeist site:

http://www.zeitgeistmovie.com/transcript.htm</p>

[S142] - Blavatsky, H. P.: The Secret Doctrine Vol 1, p 319-320

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Agent MattPosted: Mar 03, 2010 - 18:10
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I find PJ not ever reading Blavatsky as plausible as I find his claims that he was unaware of Alex Jones. I really wish that guy would be honest for once.

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SkyPosted: Mar 05, 2010 - 15:02
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Has anyone read The Holy Reich by Richard Steigmann-Gall? I just got it. It apparently shows the influence of Christianity on the Nazis, and dispels some of the claims that the Nazi's were mainly influenced by occult groups.

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Agent MattPosted: Mar 05, 2010 - 15:10
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Why would one book dispel the claims of hundreds of other books?

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SkyPosted: Mar 05, 2010 - 15:17
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Maybe dispel is not the word to use.

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Agent MattPosted: Mar 05, 2010 - 15:24
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I'm not a Christian, so I have no personal beef in the matter, but I am bit skeptical as to why someone would challenge established history this way.

I will suspend further opinions until I can look at the author's background.

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SkyPosted: Mar 05, 2010 - 15:30
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I don't think it's challenging established history. Have you ever seen some of the nonsense on the History Channel lately? A lot of the "Hitler and the Occult" stuff is exaggerated.

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Agent MattPosted: Mar 05, 2010 - 15:39
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"Have you ever seen some of the nonsense on the History Channel lately?"

Ew, no. Not a fan of that channel.

Perhaps there was some sort of proto-Christian Identity stuff going on with the Nazis. I'm just unaware of it.

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Edward L WinstonPosted: May 15, 2010 - 18:20
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I think the word "occult" is overuse, and when the Nazis used pagan ideas or adapted ancient beliefs to fit their own, this was called "occult" even thought it isn't. I'm not sure many of the people who use the word "occult" actually know what it means, and likely confuse it with the word "pagan." I know some people likely believe they mean the same thing.

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sorryPosted: May 15, 2010 - 18:29
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Sad. I thought Matt had returned.

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GeoPosted: May 15, 2010 - 19:58
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I also came across this article in discussing the Holocaust with some fellow Jews that I want to turn back away from the side of the storm-troopers.

Anyhow, to the article:

The term "war" is used in the article to refer to an economic boycott to cripple the Nazi regime. I agree that the language can be misleading.

But beyond that, the article discusses boycott and demonstrations by Jews in mostly in the US, by specific groups:

"On March 12, 1933 the American Jewish Congress announced a massive protest at Madison Square Gardens for March 27."

Apparently, these protests were covered in the Daily News paper, picture shown.

The article suggests that official German prosecution of Jews started in response, and that even WWII was started in response to the hardships created by these boycotts (the latter claim seems unfounded, and I will look over WWII history for this but wouldn't mind some quick notes).

The article then goes on to draw a Zionist-Hitler connection in getting Jews into Palestine.

It explains how the boycott and the ensuing hardship on Jews in Germany created a situation where the Jews would want to leave Germany. Through a Zionist economic agreement with the Nazi, it claims, Zionists secured Jewish passage to out of Germany and into Palestine, while at the same time had an interest in keeping Germany's economy strong to ensure transfer of Jewish capital along with the immigrants.

The arrangement is described in books by Walter Laqueur and Edwin Black, both of Jewish decent. Laqueur has written a book about anti-semitism. So it doesn't seem they are anti-semites.

The article also mentions that the English were charging 1,000 Sterling Pounds per Jewish German immigrant into their colony in Palestine during this time.

On a generally corroborating point, the mainstream-view documentary on Eichmann explains and shows how Eichmann was sent to Palestine to see if the Jews can be deported to there, if I recall correctly, but was found and sent back by the British.

Refutations?

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Edward L WinstonPosted: May 15, 2010 - 20:06
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I think the point of the article is to convince the reader that somehow the Jews were at least somewhat deserving of their fate during the Holocaust, because after all they declared "war." And while "war" is misleading, it's even more misleading to pretend that a few Jewish promoted boycotts of German businesses would somehow cripple the already crippled German economy, and that the only viable solution was to imprison every Jewish man, woman, and child and eventually kill millions of them.

Even if the cost to move Jews to Palestine was a lot, they were also rejected from every major country or the cost was too much. They were even rejected from the US. Furthermore, what does it matter if they were rejected? It isn't a good excuse for the holocaust at all.

A good question is: why does it matter if there was a boycott at all, and even if the boycott was a huge success and was an actual threat to the German economy, was the best and only solution "emigration or extermination"?

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GeoPosted: May 15, 2010 - 20:31
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I will have to deal with the Holocaust revisionism, soon, too, since some of these Jews think this event took the lives of far fewer Jews than reported and some do not believe in the gas chambers. I'm not sure where they are getting this stuff, and I'll have to figure that out before debunking it. Pointing to the evidence I've found for 6 million + gas chambers has not helped.

Back to this article:

It maybe isn't that far-fetched that Jews are prominent in a lot of business, media, government, etc. If there really is a large American Jewish boycott on something, it could be harmful to an already crippled economy.

This is not a justification for killing other Jews in Germany, by any means, but the point the CTs and (Jewish) 'anti-Zionists' try to make is that 'Zionism' is bad and that it had an interest in stirring up trouble for Jews in Germany which ended up leading to the Holocaust, and now has a vested interest in scaring Jews out of Iran (and invading Iran, different topic).

They try to establish precedence in pointing to other similar events such as those described first hand by Naeim Giladi. Naeim was an Iraqi Jew who claims the Haganah, a Jewish paramilitary group in Palestine (1920-48), bombed and killed Jews in Iraq to scare them of Arab anti-Semitism etc and get them to come to Palestine.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Naeim_Giladi</p>

That is a different topic, but, if true, lends some credence to the possibly of such behavior on the part of Zionism in regards to Germany.

They also point to the Lavon Affair and the USS Liberty, but they use those mostly to establish precedence and tendency for the notion that Israel gets the US and others to fight its wars for them, as they say they've done with 9/11.

Thanks for taking the time to rebut as much as you can!

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Edward L WinstonPosted: May 15, 2010 - 20:44
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Pretty much every holocaust denial/revisionism question has already been answered here:

http://www.nizkor.org/features/qar/

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GeoPosted: May 15, 2010 - 21:53
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Ok, great! I'll use that link.

Don't mean to belabor the point, but anyone got more rebuttals to the rest of the narrative which I summarize in my last post?

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Edward L WinstonPosted: May 15, 2010 - 21:58
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Honestly, I'm not exactly sure what point you were trying to make, I could just be reading it wrong.

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Sil the ShillPosted: May 15, 2010 - 22:02
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Maybe he means the ones that aren't tied into the holocaust directly, namely the Lavon Affair and the USS liberty thing. Never heard of the Lavon Affair, but I've seen a lot of stuff about the USS liberty. There are plenty of varying accounts, but CT's try to paint it that even if it was an intentional strike by Israeli forces against a US ship that is somehow verifies all of their other theories. I don't know too much about the subject, so I couldn't say more. Sorry Geo.

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